|  Leviticus
                25:44-46 (NIV)  The Lord said to Moses, "Your male and
                female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them
                you may buy slaves.:" The only rule, the all-just
                and all-loving God said, is that you can't kill your
                slaves.  
 
  Exodus
                21:20-21 (NIV):  "If a man beats his male or female
                slave with a rod and the slave dies as a direct result, he must
                be punished, but he is not to be punished if the slave gets up
                after a day or two, since the slave is his property" In other words, the Lord told
                Moses to tell his people that they can beat their slaves half to
                death, but if they go too far, and the slave dies, then they'll
                have to pay for it. But, if the beaten slave is able to stagger
                to his feet after a couple of days, then the owner is not to be
                punished.   Now, did a god really say
                this to Moses, or did Moses just imagine that a god said this to
                him?  Or did he pretend that it happened to justify harsh
                treatment of slaves?   The "Jesus" described in the Bible allegedly knew what was in
                scripture, and the only thing he expressed disapproval of were
                certain laws relating to teaching on the sabbath, and laws
                relating to food.  If he really existed, and was the loving
                son of God that the gospels describe, why didn't he mention even
                once that men should not beat their slaves half to death? If the
                all-caring and all-just Jesus really existed, why were trivial
                sabbath and food laws more important to him, evidently, than the
                horrific slavery practices that Jewish law allowed? |